fitzke at VOYAGER.NET
Mon Jun 14 18:48:47 UTC 1999
Dear Ms. F.
Just noticed the Ohio U in your address.Do you happen to know Ed Whan? And
thanks for the comment re Take Our Word For It. I've always belkieved that one of
the hallmarks of a professional is an interest in, and practice of, sharing and
exchanging knowledge. Popik's comments reminded me a lot of Dr. Pert's
observations in "Molecules of Emotion". Some folks still treat knowledge as
something to be jealously guarded among an inner circle, sometimes denominated
as a "good-ole-boys network. Sigh.
Beverly Flanigan wrote:
> Syllabic /n, r, and l/ should certainly have some kind of mark underneath,
> but I don't know how that's done on e-mail--Terry? But the /?/ sans dot
> doesn't signify the above; it's the sound a child makes in "uh oh" and many
> British use in "bottle," "wha'" etc. Terry's first example was glottalized
> "satin," not "sadden." Most Americans, as far as I know, do not glottalize
> "bottle" but do so with 'cotton,' 'button,' 'kitten,' 'rotten,' 'Scranton,'
> and 'Clinton' (foreign speakers usually do not glottalize 'Clinton,' but
> pronounce a clear [t] instead, as I'm sure you've noticed). To answer
> Terry's question, the exception, as someone noted a couple weeks ago, might
> be New Yorkers--anyone else?
> At 06:29 PM 6/13/99 -0500, you wrote:
> >Shouldn't those final consonants have a period underneath--or whatever is
> >the e-mail way of distinguishing them as syllables--or is that another
> >school of phonetics. Anyhow, to answer your question, in the Southeast I
> >have only heard bod?l, sad?n, and whatever the third example was. I have
> >heard bot?l and sat?n from Northerners at parties and social gatherings. I
> >have never heard bo?l or sa?n from any speakers of any ethnic group, race,
> >or social class although I have seen the allegedly phonetic spelling in
> >novels purporting to reflect certain dialects.
> >----- Original Message -----
> >From: TERRY IRONS <t.irons at MOREHEAD-ST.EDU>
> >To: <ADS-L at LISTSERV.UGA.EDU>
> >Sent: Sunday, June 13, 1999 2:47 PM
> >Subject: Glottal stops/notation
> >> On Fri, 11 Jun 1999, Pafra & Scott Catledge wrote:
> >> > Isn't the ? a pharyngeal phricative? or is it a glottal stoppal? It's
> >> > too long since I was a a member of IPA.
> >> ? without the . is a glottal stop, in IPA.
> >> In English this glottal stop is an allphone of /t/, variably, in in
> >> post-vocalic, non-word final postions, e.g., [s ae ? n] , [k a ? n],
> >> [b a ? l].
> >> Students in my intro class thus summer had some problems with this
> >> variation.
> >> Does any one have any insight on its distribution as a regional/social
> >> variant of /t/?
> >> Virtually, Terry
> >> Terry Lynn Irons t.irons at morehead-st.edu
> >> Voice Mail: (606) 783-5164
> >> Snail Mail: UPO 604 Morehead, KY 40351
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