Hypercorrection of /w/-/hw/

[David Bergdahl]

All of these responses limit the discussion to whether a voiced /w/ or a
voiceless one preceded by an /h/ -- but some people lack the preceding
voiceless spirant and only contrast a voiced and voiceless variant.  The
voiced /w/ follows other h+cons. combinations such as OE hraefn > raven, OE
hlud > loud &c., where the loss of /h/ resulted in the eventual voicing of
the initial consonant.  It seems the /ho/ signal to halt as opposed to /wo/
parallels the development of "whore" with initial /h/ rather than /hw/ or
/w/.  I can see a historical pattern in which /hw/ was reduced to voiceless
/w/ and subsequently voiced and that in an attempt to retain the aspiration
a new form /ho/ derived from "whoa."  A similar thing happened with the
initial voiceless /l/ of the Welsh Lloyd which became the English Floyd to
preserve the aspiration.  (Pure conjecture on my part).

Does anyone know the distribution of /hw/ vs. the 2 variants of /w/?  I'm
sure that in the US /w/ is winning out all over.