The Korean(-American) passive "himself"?

[Charles Doyle]

But then there's Lee Harvey Oswald . . . .

--Charlie
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---- Original message ----
>Date: Mon, 23 Apr 2007 12:22:21 -0400
>From: Laurence Horn <laurence.horn at YALE.EDU>
>Subject: Re: The Korean(-American) passive "himself"?
>To: ADS-L at LISTSERV.UGA.EDU
>
>---------------------- Information from the mail header -----------------------
>Sender:       American Dialect Society <ADS-L at LISTSERV.UGA.EDU>
>Poster:       Laurence Horn <laurence.horn at YALE.EDU>
>Subject:      Re: The Korean(-American) passive "himself"?
>-------------------------------------------------------------------------------
>
>At 9:09 AM -0700 4/23/07, Arnold M. Zwicky wrote:
>>On Apr 20, 2007, at 10:08 PM, Benjamin Barrett wrote:
>>
>>>I think the overriding concern here is the right to be presumed
>>>innocent
>>>until found guilty in court in the US. If the reporter said that
>>>Cho did
>>>it, then there might even be a case of libel or bad reporting at
>>>the least.
>>
>>but in this case (and many similar ones, like the Columbine
>>shootings), there can never be a court finding of guilt, because
>>there can never be a trial.  when the identity of the perpetrator(s)
>>is clear, no one ever has a problem with identifying them as such,
>>even though they are (and forever will be) "innocent" in the legal
>>sense.
>>
>>another case where legal language and ordinary language don't work
>>quite the same.
>>
>And after all, we never refer to John Wilkes Booth as the alleged
>killer of Lincoln (unless we're a revisionist historian).
>
>LH
>
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