Q: "It's" as the possessive?

Joel S. Berson Berson at ATT.NET
Tue Aug 11 12:39:47 UTC 2009

At 8/10/2009 03:35 PM, Joel S. Berson wrote:
>A correspondent on another list asks, when did "it's" as the
>possessive come to be proscribed?

I don't think anyone has yet addressed the question asked.  Not when
did "it's" arise (the OED is voluble on that).  Not when "it's" began
to come (back) into noticeable presence.  But -- when did it come to
be *proscribed* (that is, by the prescriptivists)?


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