No vs. nope

Laurence Horn laurence.horn at YALE.EDU
Mon Mar 11 01:15:44 UTC 2013

On Mar 10, 2013, at 7:07 PM, Wilson Gray wrote:

> On Sun, Mar 10, 2013 at 5:06 AM, Benjamin Barrett <gogaku at> wrote:
>> Why Do People Use Nope
> "… the glottal stop. Some object to the idea, though the comments on
> the language log post confirmed a glotalized p."
> Many dekkids ago, perhaps as far back as the late '40's, I read a
> couple of sentences by an Englishman WRT _yep, nope_. The author
> described them as peculiarities of American English characterised
> <har! har!> by termination in a glottal stop, faut de mieux,
> represented by  _-pe_ in the orthography.
There's more recent stuff by Nigel Ward (another Englishman, if memory serves), a paper on grunts that I read back when I was trying to figure out what's going on with "uh-huh", "unh-unh" & Co.  He's actually written a bunch of stuff that may be relevant to "yep" and "nope":  There's also a classic paper of Bolinger's on the subject in American Speech, but maybe someone mentioned that earlier.


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