<table cellspacing="0" cellpadding="0" border="0" ><tr><td valign="top" style="font: inherit;">This issue was one of the standard topics in historical linguistics, which, sadly, has fallen out of favor in universities.<br><br>There is often a "cycle" in which syntax becomes morphology.<br><br>For example, it's assumed that the 'weak' past tense morpheme -ed in English [and the other Germanic languages] began as the syntactic "did" following a verbal when the normal word order was<br><br>SOV<br><br>I thinking did.<br><br>now many dialects of English have lost the tense markers and have only aspect... the cycle continues....<br><br>If you are interested in this cycle, simply look at the standard texts on historical linguistics.<br><br><br><br><br>*************<br>
Charles Hall, Ph.D., dr.h.c.<br>
University of Memphis, Department of English<br>
Applied Linguistics and EFL/ESL<br>
901.313.4496<br>
<br>
www.charleshall.info www.l4law.org<br><br>--- On <b>Mon, 12/12/11, Graham White <i><graham@eecs.qmul.ac.uk></i></b> wrote:<br><blockquote style="border-left: 2px solid rgb(16, 16, 255); margin-left: 5px; padding-left: 5px;"><br>From: Graham White <graham@eecs.qmul.ac.uk><br>Subject: Re: [Corpora-List] Why some languages has complex morphology meanwhile other not?<br>To: corpora@uib.no<br>Date: Monday, December 12, 2011, 1:06 PM<br><br><div class="plainMail">I suspect a lot of it is simply random drift: languages have to put <br>their complexity somewhere, but there is a lot of choice as to where <br>they put it. French, for example, has lost the noun inflections which<br>Latin has, but it's acquired a complex system of clitics, which<br>Latin doesn't have. And even English, though it's not as morphologically <br>complex as its predecessors, has a very complex<br>tense and aspect system (which non-native speakers seem to find<br>very
hard to acquire). People tend to notice morphological complexity<br>because it's fairly visible, but there are many other ways of being<br>complex which aren't so obvious at first sight.<br><br>Graham<br><br>On 12/12/11 11:27, Grzegorz ChrupaĆa wrote:<br>> Dear Majid,<br>><br>> On Mon, Dec 12, 2011 at 13:52, Majid Laali<<a ymailto="mailto:mjlaali@gmail.com" href="/mc/compose?to=mjlaali@gmail.com">mjlaali@gmail.com</a>> wrote:<br>>> Dear Corpora List,<br>>><br>>> I am working on developing an stemmer/lemmatization system for Persian.<br>>> However, I am curious to know why some languages like Persian, Turkish,<br>>> Chinese have complex morphology system, meanwhile other languages like<br>>> English have much more simpler morphology system.<br>><br>> Actually Chinese has virtually no morphology. Persian morphology is<br>> also relatively simple compared to many other languages (e.g.
Slavic).<br>><br>>> In other hand, is there<br>>> any criteria caused such difference like their historical change, their<br>>> lexicon properties, or their type (Indo-European, or more specific type like<br>>> Romance)?<br>>><br>><br>> There is usually a trade-off between complexity in the morphology and<br>> complexity in the syntax. Regarding historical origins, one factor<br>> causing a simplification of morphology seems to be creolization. But<br>> of course it is only one of many factors.<br>><br>> Best,<br>> --<br>> Grzegorz<br>><br>> _______________________________________________<br>> UNSUBSCRIBE from this page: <a href="http://mailman.uib.no/options/corpora" target="_blank">http://mailman.uib.no/options/corpora</a><br>> Corpora mailing list<br>> <a ymailto="mailto:Corpora@uib.no" href="/mc/compose?to=Corpora@uib.no">Corpora@uib.no</a><br>> <a
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