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<div class="moz-cite-prefix">On 10/08/2012 09:15 AM, Trevor Jenkins
wrote:<br>
</div>
<blockquote
cite="mid:0616A5B6-E840-4EB4-9881-D3CD1BA5C7C9@suneidesis.com"
type="cite">
<div>At the moment we can't even measure the completeness of
corpora for Dickens and Hemingway. This past year has been the
200th anniversary of his birth and it is only now that much of
his ephemera has become available through the Dickens Journals
Online project <a moz-do-not-send="true"
href="http://www.djo.org.uk/">http://www.djo.org.uk/</a> (to
which I have no real connection other than being one of the team
of volunteer proof-readers/copy-editors that worked on
correcting the OCR errors in the online texts). Until that
project we pretty much had only his fiction to analyse now we
have his social observations too.<br>
<font color="#0f61c8"><br>
</font>Do we have a *<i>complete</i>* corpus for Hemingway?<br>
</div>
</blockquote>
<br>
We certainly have complete corpora of the widely published
fictional works of Dickens and Hemingway. Do we need to take
Dickens' social observations into account? Maybe, maybe not.
Completeness and representativeness all depend on your purpose.<br>
<br>
Yuri asked about homogeneity. What are the implications for
"more homogeneous" versus "less homogeneous"? Could it just mean
that Dickens had more careful (or scrupulous, rigid, or
anal-retentive) editors than Hemingway? I think "homogeneous" is
too vague a term to be useful without further context.<br>
<br>
<pre class="moz-signature" cols="72">--
Angus B. Grieve-Smith
<a class="moz-txt-link-abbreviated" href="mailto:grvsmth@panix.com">grvsmth@panix.com</a></pre>
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