Is grammar derivable?

[david_tuggy at SIL.ORG]

     What on earth would "derivable from" mean in such a statement?

     For what it's worth, I'd easily say that grammar is "established
     by" language use and "modified by" changes in usage, and that it
     "functions for the purpose of" systematically structuring
     meaning. I might even say it "consists of" systematic
     structurings of meaning-form combinations. But "derivable
     from"???

     --David Tuggy


______________________________ Reply Separator _________________________________
Subject: Is grammar derivable?
Author:  oesten at ling.su.se at internet
Date:    3/5/99 3:46 AM


In a recent Swedish introduction to generative grammar, it is said that
generative grammar, in the miminalist version, postulates an "internal
grammar", acting as an independent cognitive module. The author then goes on
(my translation): "There are other current theories of grammar that do not
assume an independent internal grammar, such as functional grammar,
according to which grammar is derivable from language use..., and cognitive
semantics, according to which grammar is derivable from meaning...."

It would be interesting to know whether FUNKNET subscribers agree with these
characterizations.


Östen Dahl