Stahlke, Herbert F.W.
hstahlke at bsu.edu
Tue Aug 31 02:05:21 UTC 2004
I agree overall with your analysis. However, I've checked Thayer's Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament, which also includes Septuagint and Hellenistic sources. ho christos shows up all over the S in its "anoint as consecration meaning". Ps.114:15, Ps.2:2, Hab.3:13, all over Samuel/Kings/Chronicles, and even in reference to a foreign king, Cyrus, in Is.45:1. The word did not have this meaning in pre-Christian non-Jewish writing, but pre-Christian Hellenistic Judaism did extend the secular meaning to its sacred needs, antedating and perhaps establishing NT usage a couple of centuries earlier.
Subject: Re: [FUNKNET] "the" (3)
In a message dated 8/30/04 1:32:51 PM, hstahlke at bsu.edu writes:
<< But I don't have a Classical Greek concordance handy, so I don't know how
it would have been used in that body of literature where a notion of messiah
didn't exist. >>
In Lidell-Scott, the first Greek references to "anoint as a consecration" are
Christian. And I don't see it as a epithet in Greek before Christ. Before
that it's mainly about smearing oil on the body or white-washing a house or
stucco -- nothing particularly religious. The meaning of "anointing" in Greek
seems pretty concrete and mundane at an earlier time.
So here it seems is a Greek word that changed drastically in its main meaning
when it was used to translate a foreign word. A small lesson perhaps in how
new ideas travel as a change in words.
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