Pragmatical similarity between 1p imperative and indicative?

[Mark P. Line]

Let's think about that for a minute....

-- Mark

Mark P. Line



A. Katz wrote:
> In languages that I am familiar with, there is no first person imperative.
> The imperative is marked as second person, and even when someone commands
> himself to do something, he is addressing himself in second person, as if
> he were someone else.
>
>     --Aya Katz
>
> http://hubpages.com/profile/Aya+Katz
>
> On Wed, 26 May 2010, Henrik Rosenkvist wrote:
>
>> Hi!
>>
>> In a paper I am working with I argue that first person imperatives are
>> (pragmatically) quite similar to indicatives, since a request aimed at
>> oneself rarely is denied. However, I have no references to lean on here,
>> and
>> therefore I wonder: do you agree about the similarity, and has anyone
>> written
>> about this?
>>
>> best
>>
>> Henrik
>>
>> --
>> Henrik Rosenkvist
>> docent, nordiska språk
>> Språk- och litteraturcentrum
>> Lunds universitet
>> Box 201
>> 221 00 Lund
>> tel: 046-222 87 04
>> e-post: Henrik.Rosenkvist at nordlund.lu.se
>>
>> Henrik Rosenkvist
>> Assistant Professor, Scandinavian Languages
>> Dept. of Languages and Literature
>> Lund University
>> P. O. Box 201, SE-221 00 Lund, SWEDEN
>> Tel.: +46 46 222 87 04
>> E-mail: Henrik.Rosenkvist at nordlund.lu.se
>>
>>
>>
>>


-- Mark

Mark P. Line
Bartlesville, OK