[gothic-l] Re: what is the real objection against the Scandiavian origin of the Goths?

[Ingemar Nordgren]

Hi Vendelkraka and Tore!

I agree with Tore and his  reccomendation of literature is good. Still
I must point  out that I have just such a theory that Vendelkraka asks
for. It is the main object with my  book 'The Well Spring of the
Goths'  that is available as both paperback and e-book on most net
book stores.

Best
Ingemar


--- In gothic-l at yahoogroups.com, Tore Gannholm <tore at g...> wrote:
> Hi,
> I don't think there is any real objections against the Baltic area with 
> Gotland in the centre having been very influential in the forming of 
> the Goths.
> It is only that some scholars can't accept this. The Polish 
> archaeologists who have excavated the Gothic areas in the last 30 years 
> fully accept it.
> 
> However, the problem is more complicated than most people think. The 
> contacts during the millennia before zero between Gotland and some 
> costal areas on the Swedish Baltic coast are extensive.
> 
> Suggested reading Kaliffs book "Gothic connections" 
> http://www.stavgard.com/Gotland/gothicconnectio_/gothic/default.htm
> 
> Tore
> 
> 
> 
> On Mar 23, 2005, at 9:56 PM, vendelkrka wrote:
> 
> >
> >
> >  I have read a lot about the pros and cons about the Scandinavian
> >  origin of the Goths, and I simply don't understand why some scholars
> >  are so categorically against it.
> >
> >  The way I see it, Poland is either the urheimat of the Germanic
> >  languages, or the Gothic language arrived to the Vistula basin from
> >  somewhere else. If we look at toponymics the names Götaland and
> >  Gotland are already suggesting where to look for the origin. If we
> >  combine with Jordanes account, it becomes even more convincing.
> >  Moreover, the Gothic language had a great deal in common with North
> >  Germanic and especially with Gutnish.
> >
> >  Now, I'd be perfectly happy if there was a just as convincing theory
> >  about a north German origin, but AFAIK, there is none.
> >
> >  My impression is that the archaelogical objections are carefully
> >  limited to the time period after 100 BC, ignoring the period 600 BC-
> >  300 BC when the climate of Scandinavia deteriorated.
> >
> >  So what is the REAL problem with the Scandinavian origin?
> >
> >
> >
> >
> >
> >
> >
> 
> 
> [Non-text portions of this message have been removed]





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