Use of Gothic language in Spain (baurgs, Burgos, burgus)

[ualarauans]

--- In gothic-l at yahoogroups.com, "llama_nom" <600cell at ...> wrote:
>
> >   There are currently two main theories about the origin of the
> Burgos toponyme. Both of them, though, take the name "Burgos" as
> coming from Germanic burgs through Latin.burgus. The first theory 
sees
> "Burgos" as evolving directly from burgus (with the final -s). The
> second theory assumes that the word descending from burgus was 
burgo,
> not burgos. In that case, the name "Burgos" would be a plural and
> would be a reference to an agglomeration of fortresses or castles.
> 
> Thanks Rydwlf!

Yes, that was indeed a great help. Thank you Rydwlf.

> At first sight, the second of these theories seems the
> more logical, and maybe it's supported by those placenames where 
the
> article appears: los burgos, el burgo.  At the very leastm that 
must
> be how such names where interpreted in later times.  But are there 
any
> other inherited words where Latin -s of the nominative singular is
> preserved, and under what circumstances would that happen?

I only remember personal name Carlos which is a singular ;) Also 
French (and English-from-French) Charles, but Italian Carlo. Since 
there was no sigmatic ending in Frankish *Kar(a)l, the quasi-plural 
form of the name comes most likely from LLat. Carolus. Probably 
there are other examples. This would support "the first theory".

> Do you think it's significant that the names are concentrated in 
the
> north?  Could this imply that they were indeed originally connected
> with the Gothic and/or Suebic settlement?  Or are there other 
factors
> which could account for that, e.g. Moorish sway in the south, later
> Frankish influences elsewhere; or simply geographical factors?  Are
> there other words applied in placenames to the same sorts of 
locations
> in the south?

The very name of Castilia comes from a word which means "fortress". 
There are probably as much geographical names derived from Arab al-
casr in the south, aren't there? 

Even if Burgos comes from Latin rather than Gothic, the Goths in 
Spain (if they still spoke their language, and I think some of them 
did) must have recognized it as (a Late Gothic reflex of Wulfilan) 
baurgs. Or the name (Baurgs) given and used by the Gothic elite was 
interpreted by Romans as Burgus. This would explain the lack of 
traces of the "breaking" (u > o) in the Modern Spanish form.

Ualarauans

> LN

P.S. The name VILLAFRIA (DE BURGOS) – could it really be something 
like *villa frija "free settlement" in Late Gothic or is there a 
Romance etymology?

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