manna(n)

[ualarauans]

Hails Denis,

Thanks a lot for your reply. I'd appreciate to know also if there 
are cases where the necessary mark is absent, due to a scribal error 
or something? I mean cases like writing manna for mannan without an 
overstroke over the last -a.

Thank you very much

Ualarauans

--- In gothic-l at yahoogroups.com, "Paperno D." <denis.paperno at ...> 
wrote:
>
> Hails Walarawans,
> 
> One thing is clear that mannan is always written in full in Silver 
Codex; I
> can't check other monuments now. I see however no reason why it 
shouldn't be
> written with an overstroke. Looks rather like a coincidence.
> 
> Denis
> 
>  
> 
>   _____  
> 
> From: gothic-l at yahoogroups.com [mailto:gothic-l at yahoogroups.com] 
On Behalf
> Of ualarauans
> Sent: Friday, June 15, 2007 2:30 PM
> To: gothic-l at yahoogroups.com
> Subject: [gothic-l] manna(n)
> 
>  
> 
> Hi,
> 
> I'm not an expert in the Gothic orthography and I need your help. 
> Could someone please tell me if there are cases of Go. mannan 
(acc. 
> sg. of manna "man") being written as manna with a nasal mark over 
the 
> last vowel? Is there some easy-to-find book where I could get this 
> info?
> 
> Thank you
> 
> Ualarauans
> 

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