"Suffix of appurtenance", Go. *haluþs, *haliþs?

[llama_nom]

> --- In gothic-l at yahoogroups.com, "llama_nom" <600cell@> wrote:
> >[...]
> > 
> > Kemp Malone (1933). `The suffix of appurtenance in "Widsith"' The
> > Modern Language Review 28:3, pp. 315-325.  [
> >
>
http://links.jstor.org/sici?sici=0026-7937%28193307%2928%3A3%3C315%3ATSOAI%22%3E2.0.CO%3B2-P
> > ].

Sorry about the multiple posts, I just keep finding more stuff in
there, just when I think I'm done... Malone also discusses the tribal
name that appears in Widsith in the dative as 'Hæleþum', from which
comes the Old English poetic synonym "man". He notes that the vowel of
the suffix was originally 'u' in the precursor of English, as in Old
Norse 'hölðar', with the development in the nominative: *haluþi >
*halyþi > *hæliþi > hæleþ. The root vowel of the nominative was then
extended by analogy to the dative, hence Hæleþum rather than *Haloþum.
It's also attested as a personal name declined as a masculine ôn-stem:
Hæleþa. But as a poetic synonym, it was still (more or less) treated
as a cononant stem in Old English [
http://www.wmich.edu/medieval/resources/IOE/inflnoun.html ].

Now, my question (for folks with more knowledge of the prehistory of
Continental West Germanic) is: can we say anything about the original
vowel of the suffix there? Hildebrandslied has 'helidôs', and I'd
always assumed that the 'i' was original, but could it too be due to
umlaut in unstressed position, or does it come from the Proto-Germanic
'i' grade after all?

LN

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