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Though I'm not familiar with the Iranian material I just wanted to
correct one thing. <br>
<pre wrap="">Wolfgang said:
</pre>
<pre wrap="">As fas as I know, the shift -bb- to
-nb- / -mb- did not take place in Semitic (Aramaic/Hebrew etc.)</pre>
this is not true, this dissimilation is a very common phenomenon in
Aramaic (already in Official Aramaic). We encounter for example the
following shift madda'>manda' (knowledge).<br>
In addition the form for sabbath without a final /t/ is the form we
encounter in Jewish Babylonian Aramaic <i>shabba</i> (as final /t/
often apocopated in this dialect) - and this is where Iranian and
Aramaic were in contact.<br>
Elitzur<br>
<br>
<pre class="moz-signature" cols="72">--
Elitzur Avraham Bar-Asher
PhD Candidate
Department of Near Eastern Languages and Civilizations
Harvard University
Lecturer in Semitics
Department of Near Eastern Languages and Civilizations
Yale University
<a class="moz-txt-link-abbreviated"
href="mailto:barasher@fas.harvard.edu">barasher@fas.harvard.edu</a>
<a class="moz-txt-link-abbreviated"
href="mailto:elitzur.bar-asher@yale.edu">elitzur.bar-asher@yale.edu</a>
<a class="moz-txt-link-freetext"
href="http://www.yale.edu/hebrew/profiles/elitzur.html">http://www.yale.edu/hebrew/profiles/elitzur.html</a> </pre>
<br>
<br>
On 3/26/2008 1:27 PM, <a class="moz-txt-link-abbreviated" href="mailto:histling-l-request@mailman.rice.edu">histling-l-request@mailman.rice.edu</a> wrote:
<blockquote cite="mid20080326172724.ADAB4DF277@amanita.mail.rice.edu"
type="cite">
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Today's Topics:
1. Sabbath (Wolfgang Schulze)
----------------------------------------------------------------------
Message: 1
Date: Wed, 26 Mar 2008 18:23:55 +0100
From: Wolfgang Schulze <a class="moz-txt-link-rfc2396E" href="mailto:W.Schulze@lrz.uni-muenchen.de"><W.Schulze@lrz.uni-muenchen.de></a>
Subject: [Histling-l] Sabbath
To: <a class="moz-txt-link-abbreviated" href="mailto:histling-l@mailman.rice.edu">histling-l@mailman.rice.edu</a>
Message-ID: <a class="moz-txt-link-rfc2396E" href="mailto:47EA86AB.10908@lrz.uni-muenchen.de"><47EA86AB.10908@lrz.uni-muenchen.de></a>
Content-Type: text/plain; charset="iso-8859-1"
Dear Colleagues,
let me ask you to help me with your competence regarding the following
question: What is the direct source of Persian shanbeh (shambe)
'Saturday'? My main concern is the representation of Aramic -bb- as -nb
/ -mb-. I know that in the early Balkan Greek vernacular, this sound
change has also taken place, but here we have s- and not sh- (resulting
in things like OHG sambaz-tag etc.). As fas as I know, the shift -bb- to
-nb- / -mb- did not take place in Semitic (Aramaic/Hebrew etc.). So, my
question is: Do we have evidence that the shift from shabbath >
shan/mba(t) > shambe already occurred in Middle Iranian? (as far as I
remember, MacKenzie's Pahlavi-English Dictionary doesn't mention the
term, neither does Horn)....
Thanks for any help, sorry for my ignorance and best wishes,
Wolfgang
</pre>
</blockquote>
<br>
<pre class="moz-signature" cols="72">--
Elitzur Avraham Bar-Asher
PhD Candidate
Department of Near Eastern Languages and Civilizations
Harvard University
Lecturer in Semitics
Department of Near Eastern Languages and Civilizations
Yale University
<a class="moz-txt-link-abbreviated" href="mailto:barasher@fas.harvard.edu">barasher@fas.harvard.edu</a>
<a class="moz-txt-link-abbreviated" href="mailto:elitzur.bar-asher@yale.edu">elitzur.bar-asher@yale.edu</a>
<a class="moz-txt-link-freetext" href="http://www.yale.edu/hebrew/profiles/elitzur.html">http://www.yale.edu/hebrew/profiles/elitzur.html</a> </pre>
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