H1 and t??

[Miguel Carrasquer Vidal]

Jens Elmegaard Rasmussen <jer at cphling.dk> wrote:

>>GG:
>> On an ironic note, if you simply accepted my **-t > *-s rather than an
>> off-the-wall **c phoneme, you would be closer to your sound rule goals,
>> in addition to <gasp> agreeing with a modified version of Miguel's
>> nonsensical sound change of **t > *H1, if you feel necessary to do.

>I don't get this: If *-s is a fine outcome for you, as it is for me from
>what I have labelled "*-c" (to avoid unwanted clashes), it all seems to
>boil down to the question, "Can [s] become [h]?" We know the answer to
>that is yes. But not even a change t > h is "nonsensical", the two
>alternate in Modern Irish, tu'ath [tu@] 'people' : a thu'ath [@ hu@] 'his
>people'.

Yes.  Of course I was thinking more in terms of word-final taa'
marbuutah (-t > -h) or Late Egyptian/Coptic -t > -?, depending on
whether one interprets *H1 as /h/ or /?/ or both.

=======================
Miguel Carrasquer Vidal
mcv at wxs.nl
Amsterdam