H1 and t??

[Miguel Carrasquer Vidal]

"Eduard Selleslagh" <edsel at glo.be> wrote:

[jij ~ gij:]
>Supposing you are right (I have an open mind on this), why would it have
>reverted to j (y) in Holland
>Dutch in some rare cases, but not in most?

I don't think it did.  j- > g- in the South only.  Irregular
development (not unexpected in a personal pronoun).
The accusative <u> was clearly never *gu.

=======================
Miguel Carrasquer Vidal
mcv at wxs.nl
Amsterdam