Why *p-*f? (St. Augustine)

X99Lynx at aol.com X99Lynx at aol.com
Wed Feb 3 06:29:26 UTC 1999


[ moderator re-formatted ]

In a message dated 2/2/99 3:56:25 PM, petegray at btinternet.com wrote:

<<<St. Augustine, who was well trained in Greek>

St Augustine knew no Greek. >>

First, the correct and full quote from my post is << St. Augustine, who was
well trained in Greek and Latin syntax...>>  It makes a big difference.

Based on this entry from an old Britannica my statement is correct.  This also
explains your misunderstanding:

   "Apparently, he was in the habit of using translations of Plato (Confess.,
    viii 2), but, on the other hand, Greek words frequently occur in his
    writings correctly rendered and discriminated; aud he speaks in one of
    his epistles to Marcellinus (LIX. tom. ii. 294) of referring to the
    Greek Psalter and finding, in reference to certain difficulties, that it
    agreed with the Vulgate.

    Clausen, who has particularly investigated the point, sums up the
    evidence to the effect that Augustine was "fairly well instructed in
    Greek grammar, and a subtle distinguisher of words," but that beyond
    this his knowledge was insufficient for a thorough comprehension of
    Greek books, and especially for those in the Hellenistic dialect."

The statement that Augustine did not know Greek is a misunderstanding of a
more specific observation about Augustine, that he did not know enough Greek
to read many of his most important sources (eg., Plato) in the original.

Augustus himself says that, while he pursued all his studies diligently, he
"studied Latin with enthusiasm but never loved Greek."

See also, the Enchiridion - the only thing of his I have at hand - where he
writes: "If you ask further what is meant in that place by pietas, the Greek
calls it more definitely qeosebeia, that is, the worship of God. The Greeks
sometimes call piety eusebeia,..."

<<< St Jerome must issue forth the official Latin Vulgate "in good language.">

<<The Latin of the vulgate is clearly very late Latin, not "good latin" in
your sense.>>

The quote "in good language" is Jerome's, not mine.  My only point was that he
had in mind that he was countering the same trend his teacher Donatus was
complaining about - wholesale sound and syntax changes that were happening in
Latin.

Regards,
Steve Long



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