accusative and ergative languages

Patrick C. Ryan proto-language at email.msn.com
Mon Jul 19 12:51:38 UTC 1999


Dear Miguel and IEists:

 ----- Original Message -----
From: Miguel Carrasquer Vidal <mcv at wxs.nl>
Sent: Friday, July 16, 1999 5:50 PM

> "Patrick C. Ryan" <proto-language at email.msn.com> wrote:

>> And to answer your -- I hope not purposeful -- distortion of what I wrote,
>> let me say explicitly that I did not assert "there are ergative languages
>> without (any) splits". I asserted that Thomsen did not, at least in her
>> grammar, identify splits in Sumerian, which you seemed to think she had.

Miguel wrote:

> Of course she has, unless your edition differs from mine: p. 51,
> paragraph 42:

> On the morphological level Sumerian has thus an ergative
>   system in the nouns and the intransitive vs. the
> transitive hamTu conjugation [...]. In the pronouns and
> the transitive maru^ conjugation vs. the intransitive
> verb, on the other hand, the system is nominative-
> accusative [...].
> This `split ergativity' is no uncommon phenomenon, in
> fact no ergative language is entirely ergative in both
> syntax and morphology.

Pat responds:

Yes, Miguel, she did write that. In the foregoing paragraph or so, she gives
a concocted example of a transitive maru: sentence:

za-e sag{~}-0 mu-zi.zi-en    you (sing.) raise the head

In this so-called "nominative-accusative" sentence, -e is the normal
termination of the ergative case, so, by form, za-e is 'you (sing.) ERG'; -0
is the normal termination of the absolutive case, so, by form, sag{~}-0 is
'head ABS'.

No, I suppose, it is also possible but fruitless to argue that -e is both
ERGATIVE and NOMINATIVE and -0 is both ABSOLUTIVE and ACCUSATIVE but what
real purpose does that serve except to play games?

I am also sure that you know that the termination -en of the verb above,
which is supposed to cross-reference the transitive maru: subject does *not*
exist in Old Sumerian (presumably before Akkadian scribes messed it up too
much).

One could always argue that the termination -e, which does exist in Old
Sumerian, was a cross-reference to the nominative subject. Is that what you
believe?

So, in conclusion, though Thomsen does mention them, she certainly did not
identify "splits" in Sumerian.

Pat

PATRICK C. RYAN (501) 227-9947; FAX/DATA (501)312-9947 9115 W. 34th St.
Little Rock, AR 72204-4441 USA WEBPAGES:
http://www.geocities.com/Athens/Forum/2803 and PROTO-RELIGION:
http://www.geocities.com/Athens/Forum/2803/proto-religion/indexR.html "Veit
ek, at ek hekk, vindga meipi, nftr allar nmu, geiri undapr . . . a ~eim
meipi er mangi veit hvers hann af rstum renn." (Havamal 138)



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