Latin perfects

[petegray]

 Latin perfects with a {v} inserted ... from a putative Latin perfect active
participle [in -vos..]

Leo said:
> Peter Gray agreed.

Not entirely - I merely support the possibility - at least until it is
proved impossible!

Leo went on:
> the *Greek* perfect active participle?  Nah; that has a stem in -ot-.

Not in Mycenaean.  e.g. te-tu-ko-wo-a2 = tetkhwoa.   Neither Iranian nor
Mycenaean shows the -t- in the -w- perfect participles.   Sanskrit and Greek
both show it, but not in the same cases, since Sanskrit has it only in those
cases that have no reflex in Greek.   It appears that Sanskrit and Greek
both independently developed -t- forms at a late stage.   The PIE participle
therefore appears to be -wo:s ~ -wos ~ us with a feminine in -us-i:.

It is at least therefore possible that Latin does not show this participle
because it got developed into something else, namely the -v- stems -----
especially since there is an exact  parallel in Tocharian.   However, the
details of this development would be complex, and I would need careful
persuasion, but at least I'm listening!

Peter