Ergative vs. accusative

[Patrick C. Ryan]

[ moderator re-formatted ]

Dear Leo and IEists:

 ----- Original Message -----
From: <CONNOLLY at LATTE.MEMPHIS.EDU>
Sent: Wednesday, June 23, 1999 10:50 AM

> Pat responded to Larry:

>> I do believe that the term 'ergative language' has a real value in
>> linguistic analysis --- to differentiate two basic approaches to
>> transitive constructions:

> [1]
>> Language A: Noun(A)+erg. noun(B)+abs. verb
>> will be interpreted as A performs an activity on B.

> [2]
>> Language B: Noun(A)+nom. noun(B)+acc. verb
>> will be interpreted as A performs an activity on B.

> [3]
>> However, in Language A, noun(B)+abs. verb
>> will be interpreted as an activity is performed by an unspecified
>> agent on B

> [4]
>> whereas in Language B: noun(B)+acc. verb is *ungrammatical*.

> All well and good, so far as the first two sentences are concerned.  However,
> what you said about combining this verb with the patient alone simply isn't
> true.  Some ergative languages happily omit the agent, others do not.  So
> what I've numbered [3] above will be legal in some ergative languages but not
> in others.

> Conversely, [4] is perfectly grammatical in many accusative languages.
> Couldn't think of an example good enough to convince you.  But look at
> this post.  Must've seen stuff like this before, right?

Well, I agree with your first comment. But *most* ergative languages treat
the agentive as a missible adverbial adjunct of the verb. Perhaps there may
be a question of these languages being "truly" ergative?

I am unaware of any accusative language in which this contsruction is
grammatical. As you know by now, Larry indicated that verbal inflections
should not be considered an expression of the subject in languages like
Latin. I consider this position unjustifiable.

Pat

PATRICK C. RYAN (501) 227-9947; FAX/DATA (501)312-9947 9115 W. 34th St.
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