Danube homeland.

[Glen Gordon]

JOATSIMEON:
 -- nonsensical.  The PIE vocabulary is full of items which just
 weren't around before 4000 BCE.  This alone completely rules out such
a hypothesis.

This whole question is about who's talking about what when they say
IE. It's somewhat confusing. As far as I understand now, Miguel is
pushing for the so-far aggravatingly difficult-to-fight idea that the
Satem dialects alone arrived in the Pontic-Caspian region early and IE
proper was in the Balkans. Although I intuitively know this can't be
right, I haven't seen a good disproval come way yet.

We have to get organized here and succinct to make sure the debate
doesn't runaway out of control. What terminology shows undenyably that
the _entire_ IE (from Anatolian to Armenian) should be found both in the
Pontic-Caspian region AND a time of 4000-3500 BCE as most of us expect.
Is there inheirited 4000-3000 BCE terminology in Anatolian that anyone
knows of?

Actually what about *sweks, *septm and other Semitic-related terms?
Isn't this supposed to have come from West Semitic as we seem to have
accepted? How does this word enter so early into IE? It would have had
to occur before 6000 BCE then, no? When/where is West Semitic supposed
to have existed? Or Semitic? Isn't this a little early? There must be a
strict time limit. Something tells me there's a big loophole here
somewhere.

--------------------------------------------
Glen Gordon
glengordon01 at hotmail.com

Kisses and Hugs