Celtic influence

[JoatSimeon at aol.com]

>iffr762 at utxvms.cc.utexas.edu writes:

>Yes it will.  The kingdom of Scotland had been Gaelic-using till shortly (as
>linguistic time is measured) before.  Thus, just as in England, there had
>been little time for divergence to evolve.

-- Lothian was settled by Angles at the same time as the settlements further
south. The Lowlands were Lallans-speaking by the early medieval period.  The
line of division with Gaelic then remained fairly stable until the early
modern period.

>So your theory then enables us to confidently (or should I say immodestly)
>predict that Southern aristocrats speak Black English.

-- "spoke".  A closely related dialect.  They've diverged since 1865, as
social distance grew.

>1) why ME diverges from the rest of Germanic

-- languages diverge.

>and converges with Celtic

-- there are a limited number of ways they can change.  Why does Frisian share
most of the English innovations?

Are Celts prowling the Frisian swamps?