Linear A to Linear B

[petegray]

Larry asks for responses in a posting where he says:
> Linear A was used to write the unknown language we call Minoan.  In all
> likelihood, it was invented for the purpose of writing that language.

Much of Larry's posting appears to me reasonable and common sense, except
that here I wish to add a quibble.   It seems to me more likely that the
idea that a language could be written down did not develop in isolation in
Crete, but was imported from somewhere.    We know that when this happened
elsewhere, it was very common for the inspiring script to be adapted to the
new language, rather than for a totally new script to be developed ex nihilo
(although I grant there are one or two exceptions).    This adaptation often
meant inadequacies or infelicities in the resultant script.   I would
therefore be very cautious in using the argument that the script of Linear A
must reflect the language well, since it was "invented" for linear A.

Peter