Pre-Basque Phonology

[CONNOLLY at LATTE.MEMPHIS.EDU]

>[Ed Selleslagh]

>I forgot to mention that in Modern Greek (NeoEllinik=F3) the use of the
>definite article before proper names is standard practice, e.g. O Yorghos
>("the George", written Ho Gio:rgos). And of course also with titles, like in
>Spanish:  o k=EDrios ("el se=F1or", written Ho Kyrios) XYZ, i kir=EDa ("la
>se=F1ora", written He: Kyr=EDa) XYZ. I know of no special connotation.

This is already standard in the Greek of the New Testament (mainly first
century AD).  I haven't looked at classical stuff from the 4th or 5th century
BC for many years, but I don't remember seing the promiscuous personal article
there.  Certainly it's not in Homer, where there hardly seems to be an article
at all (just spotty weak demonstratives).

Leo

Leo A. Connolly                         Foreign Languages & Literatures
connolly at memphis.edu                    University of Memphis