GREEK PREHISTORY AND IE (EVIDENCE?)

[X99Lynx at aol.com]

I wrote:
<<>But the hypothesis does actually reasonably suggest that Greek's
>'grandparent' and Hittite's 'grandparent' should have had a closer
>relationship than a coeval IE language located across the continent.

In a message dated 2/4/00 12:17:35 PM, JoatSimeon at aol.com wrote:
-- yes.  And they DON'T.>>

And not a paragraph before that you say 'You do not GET uniform languages
over large areas.'  And then you talk about Latin.  Or English for that
matter.  There's a new rule for every situation.  Linguistic nonsense.

I wrote:
>great-great-grand parent IE language arrived in western europe in the
>middle-late European neolithic.

JoatSimeon at aol.com wrote:
<<--  No.  Renfrew specifically attributes the arrival of the IE languages in
Europe to the EARLY neolithic; to the introduction of agriculture as such.>>

Yes.  SORRY.  But yes.  Not 'the introduction of agriculture as such' - The
term 'middle neolithic' as applied to Europe as a whole (not locally)
encompasses my 4500-4000BC date.  For some reason you are calling the whole
process 'early neolithic'.  Neolithic is basically a distinction from
mesolithic.  Early neolithic in Europe as a whole generally denotes the
period before 5000BC.  Locally the term is sometimes used when different
sub-periods can be identified.  But in terms of Europe, farming 'as such' is
also being introduced in the late neolithic and in some areas even in the
'European iron age.'

Steve Long