PIE e/o Ablaut

[Richard M. Alderson III]

On Thu, 30 Mar 2000, Pat Ryan (proto-language at email.msn.com) wrote:

> We have to distinguish --- and I believe you are not --- the proposition
> that "Sanskrit is a one vowel language" from what *I* am proposing: "Old
> Indian has one phonemic vowel".

In any reasonable phonological theory, the two statements are equivalent.  What
do you think differentiates them?

								Rich Alderson