origin of Latin "do, dare"

petegray petegray at btinternet.com
Thu Oct 5 14:33:20 UTC 2000


> ...And this
> pre-literary Italic would have to be pretty early, if I am not mistaken,
> for the change to /f/ not to have occurred,

Also because of the perfect form (unless this is influenced by dare).  An
original compound of *dheh1 could well have a reduplicated zero grade
perfect which would appear in Latin as -didi < *ded-ai < *dedh-h2e + -i (cf
the Greek tethe:ka with secondary suffix and different grade as always).   A
later compound of facio is far more likely to have (or could only have) the
perfect in -feci.

Peter



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