*G^EN-

[proto-language]

Dear Peter and IEists:

----- Original Message -----
From: "petegray" <petegray at btinternet.com>
Sent: Tuesday, June 05, 2001 2:20 PM

[PCRp]
>> does that, in your opinion, mean there was no *g^en-?

[PG]
> One senses an unfriendly trap - which is fun - but I do prefer a more open
> sharing of ideas.

[PCR]
Seriously, I am not trying to "trap" anyone --- just soliciting informed
opinions.

The reason for my question is that, in another context, I had a difference of
opinion with someone on this question.

Like Pokorny, I believe that an Old Indian form like _jánati_ points to
*g^en- rather than *g^enH-.

Secondarily, everything I have investigated leads me to believe that the basis
of the CVC definition of a root is pretty universal.

Methodologically, if it (and some others) can be derived from *both* *g^en- and
*g^enH-, I see no reason to assume the non-existence of *g^en- just because all
forms can be derived from *g^enH-. My preference would be to assume that a
root, *g^en- (which I would consider to be *basic*) and a root with extension,
*g^enH- have been conflated into a single paradigm.

This scenario seems to me to be a logical possibility (and, if one is commmited
to the CVC-model as I am: necessary) but I do understand that if Occam's Razor
is vigorously applied, there is, of course, no necessity to posit *g^en-.

> Studiously trying to avoid your trap, I say that the existence of the root
> (or roots) *g'enH / g'neH says nothing at all about the existence of *g'en.
> I do however allow that I am not aware of any IE forms that would point to
> such a root, rather than to *genH with loss of H.

> Is that carefully enough worded for you?

[PCR]
Certainly.

Pat

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