Genetic Descent

[Rick Mc Callister]

	But would syntax in and of itself be a determining factor?

	Romance languages also have some odd syntax patterns --although
these are limited to certain types of verbs,
	e.g. Spanish OVS

	Me gustan los libros.
	"To me please (3p) the books."
	"I like books."

	Se venden libros.
	"Themselves (mediopassive pronoun) sell (3pl) books"
	"Books are sold."

	Se me acabo/ el dinero.
	"Itself (mediopassive/reflexive pronoun) to me finished (3s) the
money."
	"My money ran out."

	Old Spanish often used VSO forms such as

	Gusto/me el libro.
	"Pleased-(3s)-me the book."
	"I liked the book."

[snip]
>I will give a quite relevant example of what I mean by this.  If genetic
>descent is to be traced through non-sound features (I notice you are no
>longer actively claiming this), then why isn't Celtic a mixed language, so
>that there was never really any such thing as Proto-Celtic?  The non-sound
>convergence of (Insular) Celtic to Semitic, or something like it, is quite
>striking, and extends even down to the level of fairly minor details like
>the Northern Subject Rule and Interior Possession ("You killed my horse"
>rather than "You killed to me the horse")  I suppose you and others could
>claim that the level of Semitic-seeming non-sound resemblances in Celtic,
>though it is "a lot", is not "enough", but who is to deny the Steve Longs
>and other No-Protos of the world when they come back and say "Yes it is."?
[snip]

Rick Mc Callister
W-1634
Mississippi University for Women
Columbus MS 39701