-ca in Sanskrit and Bartholomae's law

[petegray]

> could someone explain why Bartholomae's law never affects -ca ?

It concerns the specific formation root + tos.  It raises a number of severe
questions, and the "new phonoogy" of PIE mght even remove teh law entirely.

In more traditional terms, -tos is seen as a bound morpheme suffixed to a
non-independent form of the root, whereas -ca is seen as a separate
morpheme, following an indpenedent word.  In our modern script, it happens
to be written on the word in Latin, not on the word in Greek, and on the
word in Sanskrit, but in Sanskrit everything is written without a space if
possible, so that means nothing.   The morpheme boundary between a preceding
element and -ca is much stronger than the boundary between a root (which
does not exist on its own) and the bound morpheme -tos.

Peter