-ca in Sanskrit and Bartholomae's law

Vidhyanath Rao rao.3 at osu.edu
Fri Jun 29 13:30:10 UTC 2001


"petegray" <petegray at btinternet.com> wrote:

>> could someone explain why Bartholomae's law never affects -ca ?

> It concerns the specific formation root + tos.  It raises a number of
> severe questions, and the "new phonoogy" of PIE mght even
> remove teh law entirely.

In Sanskrit, it affects the "infinitives" in -tum, -tave, -tos (not to
be comfused with PIE -*to), agent nouns in -tar and action noun in -ti.
It presumeably would have affected primary suffixes in -p and -c if they
had existed. [-ka seems to occur as primary suffix, but only with a
handful roots ending in vowels, and may very well go back root noun +
secondary suffix ka. This cannot be asserted synchronically because root
nouns ending in short vowels add -t.]

Are there any recent (in the last 2-3 years) about the "new phonologies"?

Regards
Nath



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