<div style="MARGIN: 0in 0in 10pt" class="MsoNormal"><font size="3" face="Calibri">Well, it seems to me that a speaker can be considered as “always” more proficient in the dominant language only if dominance is defined based on a relative proficiency in two languages. However, if language proficiency is considered as a distinct construct (e.g., as a level of linguistic attainment), then the relations between dominance and proficiency can vary. For example, a speaker may be dominant in L2, but be more proficient in L1.<span style="mso-spacerun: yes"> </span>There are numerous operational definitions of language dominance and proficiency so I am sure some people may disagree with me. I would be very interested in hearing other opinions as well. </font></div>
<div style="MARGIN: 0in 0in 10pt" class="MsoNormal"><font size="3" face="Calibri">Katya</font></div><br><br>
<div class="gmail_quote">On Fri, Mar 26, 2010 at 12:43 PM, Bruno Estigarribia <span dir="ltr"><<a href="mailto:brunilda@gmail.com">brunilda@gmail.com</a>></span> wrote:<br>
<blockquote style="BORDER-LEFT: #ccc 1px solid; MARGIN: 0px 0px 0px 0.8ex; PADDING-LEFT: 1ex" class="gmail_quote">Forgive the silly question. This is not my field but the following struck me as counterintuitive so I want to make sure this is what was intended:
<div class="im"><br>"For example, in order to be a highly proficient in a certain language a speaker does have to be dominant in that language."<br></div>Isn't the converse more intuitively sensible? You can, I guess, be highly proficient in two languages but (I want to say, by definition almost), only dominant in one of them. Am I missing something (perhaps in the literature) that contradicts this?<br>
Just curious.<br>Bruno<br>-- <br>Bruno Estigarribia<br>Research Assistant Professor<br>364A Davie Hall, CB #3270<br>Department of Psychology - University of North Carolina at Chapel Hill<br>Chapel Hill, NC 27599-3270<br>USA<br>
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<blockquote style="BORDER-LEFT: #ccc 1px solid; MARGIN: 0px 0px 0px 0.8ex; PADDING-LEFT: 1ex" class="gmail_quote">
<div class="im">The first question here is how language dominance is defined. Sometimes language dominance is used interchangeably with language proficiency due to a definition of language dominance in terms of the relative proficiency in two languages. However, these two constructs can be distinguished in terms of psycholinguistic properties (See Birdsong (2006) Dominance, proficiency, and second language grammatical processing in /Applied Psycholinguistics/). Often language dominance implies the superior performance on measures of fluency, speed, automaticity, and accuracy in processing. For example, in order to be a highly proficient in a certain language a speaker does have to be dominant in that language. In addition, assessment of language dominance is frequently based on the underlying assumption of uniform superior performance in the dominant language. However, dominance in one aspect of the language does not necessarily imply dominance in others.<br>
Katya<br><br></div>
<div class="im">On Thu, Mar 25, 2010 at 7:40 AM, Maja Roch <<a href="mailto:majaroch@gmail.com" target="_blank">majaroch@gmail.com</a> <mailto:<a href="mailto:majaroch@gmail.com" target="_blank">majaroch@gmail.com</a>>> wrote:<br>
<br> Hello,<br> is anybody familiar with some possible criteria to be adopted for<br> establishing a dominant language of a bilingual child?<br> Best regards,<br> Maja Roch<br><br> --<br> You received this message because you are subscribed to the Google<br>
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