[Lexicog] Particularity of Neapolitan grammar - origin?

Dr. Hayim Y. Sheynin hsheynin at GRATZ.EDU
Sun Dec 11 19:00:30 UTC 2005

In many Semitic languages possessive pronouns form suffixes adjacent to
the noun (possessive) or verb (in the case of objective case),
Thus in Hebrew sifrii (ii for long i)  - my book ; 'ishti (my wife);
'ishtoo (oo for long o) his wife; ba`ali (my husband); ba`alekh (your

Similarly the same happens in other Semitic languages; I do not know
whether Naples (Neapolis) was ever under Arab rule, but Sicily and Malta
definitely were. It is worth to note that in certain time Naples was
under Aragonese (Spanish) rule and in Spanish language sometimes occurs
the use of objective pronoun in postposition to the verb (me, te, lo,
la) written as one word.                            

Best wishes,
Dr. Hayim Y. Sheynin
Adjunct Professor of Jewish Literature
Gratz College
7605 Old York Rd.
Melrose Park, PA 19027
Tel.: 215 635-7300 x 161
Fax: 215 635-7320
email: hsheynin at gratz.edu

-----Original Message-----
From: lexicographylist at yahoogroups.com
[mailto:lexicographylist at yahoogroups.com] On Behalf Of Sabine Cretella
Sent: Saturday, December 10, 2005 12:48 PM
To: lexicographylist at yahoogroups.com
Subject: [Lexicog] Particularity of Neapolitan grammar - origin?

Good evening!

I was just checking the new Neapolitan lemmas we have around and there 
is one particularity that makes it different from Italian.

Example: your mother in Italian is "tua madre" and in Neapolitan

So the possessive is directly connected to the noun.

Can someone of you help me to understand from which language this way of

creating words comes from? Which other languages use this way of 
creating a compound?

Thank you!!!

Best, Sabine


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