[Lexicog] gendered language references

Filip Rudolf keiefar_66 at YAHOO.COM
Sun Nov 26 10:36:34 UTC 2006


In Polish the situation is as follows: we have the word ,,ojczyzna" (roughly 'fathers' country') although the word itself is feminine. The same holds good for the 'native language' which is ,,język ojczysty" (literally 'father tongue'). In slightly more elevated context it is possible to come across a phrase ,,ziemia naszych ojców" (literally 'the land of our fathers/forefathers'). Incidentally, this phrase is also feminine because the word ,,ziemia" ('land') is itself feminine. 
Forms related to 'mothers', though undoubtedly in existence, are decidedly less common. There is an adjective ,,macierzysty" (literally 'of the mother') which can be used in a phrase ,,macierzysty język" (something like 'mother tongue').
Can't think of any more examples.

Filip

----- Original Message ----
From: Hayim Sheynin <hsheynin19444 at yahoo.com>
To: lexicographylist at yahoogroups.com
Sent: Saturday, November 25, 2006 5:54:32 PM
Subject: RE: [Lexicog]  gendered language references









  


    
            I forgot to mention that eretz and ha-aretz (earth, country and this country, i.e.
  Palestine) is feminine in Hebrew, as names of all countries (cp. Latin  names of countries). Hebrew has only two genders, so for Hebrew  speakers there is only binary choice.
  
  Hayim

Fritz Goerling <Fritz_Goerling@ sil.org> wrote:
                                                          
    Hayim,
  
    
    When God told patriarch Abraham to leave  his country, relatives and his father’s house
    in Gen. 12:1, how is country (erets)  perceived by a native speaker of Hebrew? Is there any idea of “fatherland”  or “motherland” in modern Hebrew? When Jews make Aliya, do they  come back to Israel  just as “ha erets” (as their “homeland”) or to the land  of their fathers?
    Is there any politically correct movement,  like in the anglophone world, among modern Hebrew speakers who avoid talking  about “fathers” and prefer “ancestors?”
      
    Shalom,
      
    Fritz
                Dear Ken,
  
  On the other hand, what is striking that Latin word patria is feminine. If you  can imagine a simile that you country like a mother for you, why patria even it  is derived etimologically from pater, cannot be  feminine.
  The same relates to patrimonia. The problem with gender of these words lie
  not with the language, but rather with the thought. On one hand, you may  explain 
  that patria is the country of your forefathers and  foremothers and  patrimonia  is
  the property (and legacy) of your forefathers and foremothers,  on the  other that
  the roots of these words reflect reality of the patriarchal society, where  fathers were the "top" persons. 
  
  --Hayim Sheynin
  
  "Kenneth C.  Hill" <kennethchill@ yahoo.com> wrote:
                Grammatical gender is an insufficient explanation. I find it striking  that in Spanish, the word for "fatherland" is grammatically feminine:  la patria. Patria is a Latin word derived from pat(e)r 'father' + the feminine  derivational suffix -ia.
  
  --Ken
  
  saghar sharifi <saghar_sharifi@ yahoo.com>  wrote:
    
                The answer to your question would be that in some languages, as in  German, the word " language " is
 feminine.
    
         
    
         Leman  <wayne_leman@ sil.org> wrote:
    
                I'm wondering about English terms for kinds of languages:
  
  Why do we speak of a mother tongue but not a father tongue?
  
  Why do we speak of sister languages but not brother languages?
  
  Why are there daughter languages but not son languages?
  
  Why can we refer to both a motherland and a
 fatherland?
  
  Do other languages use kinship terms to refer to language relationships?
  
  Wayne
  -----
  Wayne Leman
  Cheyenne  dictionary online:
  http://www11. asphost4free. com/cheyennedict ionary/default. htm
    
    
          
                    
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