[Lexicog] Re: When Semantics Doesn't Matter

Hayim Sheynin hsheynin19444 at YAHOO.COM
Wed Jul 4 02:34:26 UTC 2007


Dear Mike,

I will try to answer your question, only can you email me in attachment the wo Greek words in the following paragraph:

 (Perhaps related: apparently the two words (κάμηλον 'camel' and κάμιλον 
 'rope') are similar in Greek.)

Because as you see my yahoo email distorted these words.
I can surmise what they are, but better I see them, than guess.
You can send it off list to my email: hsheynin19444 at yahoo.com. When I receive this in attachment, I can see correct script.

I'll reply as soon as I get these words.

Hayim Sheynin

Mike Maxwell <maxwell at ldc.upenn.edu> wrote:                                  Hayim Sheynin wrote:
 > Aramaic texts can confirm or overturn the theoretical conclusions of the
 > scholars in respect to a Greek original. For me not only particular 
 > Aramaic quotations, but also certain Semitic structures of the Greek 
 > text point either to preceding Western Aramaic text or to authors who 
 > wrote Greek but thought in Aramaic.
 
 This looks like the ideal forum to ask a question that I've wondered 
 about for a long time.
 
 In Matthew 19:24 and the other synoptic gospels, Jesus says that "It is 
 easier for a camel to go through the eye of a needle, than for a rich 
 man to enter into the kingdom of God."   My (mis?)understanding is that 
 the Aramaic word for 'camel' can either mean 'large rope, hawser', or 
 sounds similar to the Aramaic word for 'large rope', as attested by a 
 tenth century lexicographer.  If this is true, one interpretation is 
 that this is a pun--Jesus said that it is easier for a camel, but it 
 sounded very like the word for rope, which would certainly make more 
 sense in the context, at least as a hyperbole.  (Or if the two words 
 were identical, perhaps the Greek is a mis-translation of the Aramaic, 
 that is, a translation of the wrong sense.)
 
 Is there any truth to this?  What are the Aramaic words for 'camel' and 
 'large rope'?  And do we have any corpus attestation for the latter, or 
 is this a tenth century guess about what might have made sense?
 
 (Perhaps related: apparently the two words (κάμηλον 'camel' and κάμιλον 
 'rope') are similar in Greek.)
 -- 
  Mike Maxwell
  maxwell at ldc.upenn.edu
 
     
                       

       
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