[Lexicog] indeclinable def.

phil cash cash pasxapu at DAKOTACOM.NET
Fri Jul 18 21:11:45 UTC 2008


In Nez Perce (Sahaptian, North America), we can say the following.

1)
kíyex páayo qi’yáwn.
I..very..thirst
It is that I have become very thirsty.

In this expression, the pronoun kíyex indicates 1st PERSON SUBJ.   
But, as an indeclinable prounoun, we may say that the SUBJECT “I” is  
populated by a knowing SPEAKER and an unknowing HEARER (or person  
spoken to).  So when somebody says “It is that I have become very  
thirsty,” they are actually saying:

1a) “It is that I (and anybody hearing/listening that does not know  
this) have become very thirsty.”

It is this example (which is descibed as INCLUSIVE) that I was  
thinking of when I started this thread.  Maybe inclusive and  
indeclinable are similar...maybe not.  Anyway, Nez Perce being a  
polysynthetic language, has a full range of declinable bound and  
unbounded pronouns as well as a wide range of particles containing  
person inflections.  But the above example may be strongly oriented  
to discourse interaction.  So I will be looking at more of these  
(need a searchable corpus!).

Thanks for all the discussion, very informative, as it gives me a  
better understanding of what an indeclinable expression is and  
isn't.  For me, it seems another layer of description to add on to  
the already dense complexity of the language.  Clarity is good,  
especially for descriptive purposes.

Phil (Cayuse/Nez Perce)



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