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<P>I am not sure, but doesn't Fergusonian diglossia also suggest societal multilingualism (de facto) even though at thimes speakers will swear blind that they don't know and speak the other variety (linguistic schizophrenia)? The mark of the diglossic situation is that speakers use the two varieties in different domains: "two varieties of a language exist side by side throughout the community, with each having a definite role to play" (Ferguson 1959).
<P>If this is not correct, could someone please enlighten me?
<P>Joseph
<P> </P></DIV><BR><BR>Joseph T. Farquharson, BA Hon. (UWI) <br>Graduate Student <br>Sidney Sussex College<br>University of Cambridge<br>Cambridge CB2 3HU<br>United Kingdom<br>jtf25@cam.ac.uk<p><p><br><hr size=1><a href="http://uk.rd.yahoo.com/evt=8613/*http://uk.yahoo.com/mail/tagline_plus/?http://uk.promotions.yahoo.com/yplus/btoffer.html"><b><font face="Arial" size="2">Yahoo! Plus - For a better Internet experience</font></b></a><br>