<div><BR>hi everybody , </div> <div>i have longly tought about why the speakers regardless of their spoken languages tend to usen and prefer certain lexis more than others ( conjunctions, idiomatic expressions, ..etc ) even in writing , every one has his favourite stock of words and expressions , </div> <div>what are the origins of such verbal / written preferences ? and how can we lead an inverstigation on it , it seems quite original for me but i don't know how to deal !</div> <div> </div> <div> </div> <div>need anwers </div> <div>best regards </div> <div>Mostari</div> <div>Algeria <BR><B><I>Anthea Fraser Gupta <A.F.Gupta@leeds.ac.uk></I></B> wrote:</div> <BLOCKQUOTE class=replbq style="PADDING-LEFT: 5px; MARGIN-LEFT: 5px; BORDER-LEFT: #1010ff 2px solid">Christina said:<BR><BR>> Think of Britain. Since the invasion of <BR>> the Germanic hordes (I am thinking of the Angles and the Saxon), part<BR>of - <BR>> and that is an important
proviso- the population has been steadily <BR>> involved in some kind of shift<BR><BR>On the other hand, as a result of migration, the England of the 2000s is<BR>more multilingual than the England of my childhood in the 1950s. And<BR>some communities that are large enough and have some geographical<BR>concentration have been able to maintain it.<BR><BR>Anthea <BR><BR><BR>* * * * *<BR><BR>Anthea Fraser Gupta (Dr)<BR><BR>School of English, University of Leeds, LS2 9JT<BR><WWW.LEEDS.AC.UK afg staff english><BR><BR>NB: Reply to a.f.gupta@leeds.ac.uk<BR><BR>* * * * *<BR><BR></BLOCKQUOTE><BR><p>
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