grammaticization question

[samuels at anthro.umass.edu]

I was wondering if one of the grammaticization gurus out there (or just a
Latin scholar!) could help fill in the blanks of the "ficare" to "-fy"
history. My understanding is that "-fy" came into English from the French
"-fier." But I'd like to know the history of the Latin-to-French shift
here. Can't find this particular example in any of the grammaticalization
books on my shelf.

Thanks!

Best,

David

* *  *   *     *        *             *                     *
David W. Samuels
Assistant Professor
Department of Anthropology
212 Machmer Hall
University of Massachusetts
Amherst, MA 01003

VOX: (413) 545-2702
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email: samuels at anthro.umass.edu
http://www-unix.oit.umass.edu/~samuels/

wot 2 be got 2 be