[Lingtyp] Does bipolar polysemy exist?

Mattis List mattis.list at lingpy.org
Thu May 31 07:03:17 EDT 2018


Wouldn't the frequent cases of pronouns or pronoun-like words in French
(personne = "person, nobody", pas = "step, not", etc.) come close to
this notion? And this process has historically also be claimed for other
negation words, like Ancient Greek "ou", if I am not mistaken.

Best,

Mattis

On 2018-05-31 12:57, Joo Ian wrote:
> Dear all,
> 
>  
> 
> I would like to know if the following universal claim holds:
> 
>  
> 
> /There exists no lexeme that can mean X and the negation of X. (For
> example, no lexeme can express “to go” and “to not go”)./
> 
>  
> 
> I wonder if such “bipolar polysemy” exists in any lexeme, because I
> cannot think of any, and whether this claim is truly universal.
> 
> I would appreciate to know if there is any counter-evidence.
> 
>  
> 
> From Hong Kong,
> 
> Ian Joo
> 
> http://ianjoo.academia.edu
> 
> 
> 
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