[Lingtyp] Does bipolar polysemy exist?

zamponi_raoul at libero.it zamponi_raoul at libero.it
Thu May 31 10:15:15 EDT 2018


Dear Ian,
in the Italian linguistic tradition, this phenomenon is called "enantiosemia" (cf. enantiosemy in Prof. Koptjevskaja Tamm's message) and an interesting article about it (with various examples), by Giulio Lepschy, appears in this Italian dictionary of Linguistics (pp. 273-74): Dizionario di linguistica e di filologia, metrica, retorica, ed. by G. L. Beccaria. Turin: Einaudi (various editions since 1994). This phenomenon attracted also Sigmund Freud's attention (Über den Gegensinn der Urworte, 1910:https://www.textlog.de/freud-psychoanalyse-gegensinn-urworte.html). Freud found in bipolar polysemy a confirm to his hypotheses on the nature of the unconscious ...
Best,
Raoul


> Il 31 maggio 2018 alle 12.57 Joo Ian <ian.joo at outlook.com> ha scritto:
> 
> 
>     Dear all,
> 
>      
> 
>     I would like to know if the following universal claim holds:
> 
>      
> 
>     There exists no lexeme that can mean X and the negation of X. (For example, no lexeme can express “to go” and “to not go”).
> 
>      
> 
>     I wonder if such “bipolar polysemy” exists in any lexeme, because I cannot think of any, and whether this claim is truly universal.
> 
>     I would appreciate to know if there is any counter-evidence.
> 
>      
> 
>     From Hong Kong,
> 
>     Ian Joo
> 
>     http://ianjoo.academia.edu
> 
 

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