[Lingtyp] Does bipolar polysemy exist?

Steve Pepper pepper.steve at gmail.com
Thu May 31 10:48:49 EDT 2018


That's a wicked question!

Steve

On 31 May 2018 at 12:57, Joo Ian <ian.joo at outlook.com> wrote:

> Dear all,
>
>
>
> I would like to know if the following universal claim holds:
>
>
>
> *There exists no lexeme that can mean X and the negation of X. (For
> example, no lexeme can express “to go” and “to not go”).*
>
>
>
> I wonder if such “bipolar polysemy” exists in any lexeme, because I cannot
> think of any, and whether this claim is truly universal.
>
> I would appreciate to know if there is any counter-evidence.
>
>
>
> From Hong Kong,
>
> Ian Joo
>
> http://ianjoo.academia.edu
>
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>
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