[Lingtyp] grammaticalized v grammaticized
christian.lehmann at uni-erfurt.de
Wed Jun 12 16:17:50 EDT 2019
Just a brief comment on the thought-provoking comments by Alex and Daniel:
A distinction is to be made between a process and the state or property
resulting from the process, like 'grammaticalize' and 'grammaticalized'.
These are clearly different concepts. It is a defect of the English
language that a passive participle predicate, as in /is
grammaticalized/, is ambiguous between the process and its result.
Likewise, abstract nouns like /grammaticalization/ often do not only
designate a process, but also its result. It can clearly be useful to
distinguish the two terminologically, like /grammaticalized/ (process)
and /grammaticized/ (result), and likewise with /grammaticalization/ and
/grammaticization/. This, however, has nothing to do with diachrony vs.
A process may produce a result that remains in the system even after the
process itself is no longer operative in the language. For instance, for
some time there may be variation as to whether a certain syntactic
construction is formed by rules of grammar or is lexicalized. If you
look at the variation synchronically, you do not see its direction.
However, once the result of the process, viz. the lexicalized
expression, becomes part of the system while the syntactic construction
gets lost, the system is changed. Looking at the phenomenon
diachronically, including the phase of variation and the resultant
phase, you do see the direction in the process. What differs is the
viewpoint, viz. synchrony vs. diachrony. With it change the
methodological possibilities and, consequently, the possible insights.
The nature of the process itself remains unaffected; it is always
lexicalization, a process of directed variation. The same goes for
assimilation, metaphora and all the other examples of directed variation.
Prof. em. Dr. Christian Lehmann
E-Post: christianw_lehmann at arcor.de
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