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<p style="margin-top:0;margin-bottom:0">Agreed on 't'inquiète'! </p>
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<p style="margin-top:0;margin-bottom:0">I suppose that historically there would be two ways to reach bipolar polysemies: </p>
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<p style="margin-top:0;margin-bottom:0">- One single form takes on diverging senses in different contexts. </p>
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<p style="margin-top:0;margin-bottom:0">- Two different forms, one meaning X and one meaning not-X, converge in their realization. Elided negations would fall into this category - but can they be total? It seems that only different contexts could warrant successful
communication? </p>
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<p style="margin-top:0;margin-bottom:0">Cheers, Maïa</p>
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<div id="divRplyFwdMsg" dir="ltr"><font face="Calibri, sans-serif" style="font-size:11pt" color="#000000"><b>From:</b> Lingtyp <lingtyp-bounces@listserv.linguistlist.org> on behalf of Sebastian Nordhoff <sebastian.nordhoff@glottotopia.de><br>
<b>Sent:</b> Thursday, 31 May 2018 8:16 PM<br>
<b>To:</b> lingtyp@listserv.linguistlist.org<br>
<b>Subject:</b> Re: [Lingtyp] Does bipolar polysemy exist?</font>
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On 05/31/2018 02:01 PM, Maia Ponsonnet wrote:<br>
> I certainly see the nuance between "not X" and "antonym (X)", as the latter is really quite common<br>
> <br>
> <br>
> As for the former, as a native speaker of French "inquiète-toi" vs "t'inquiète" doesn't work for me.<br>
> <br>
> <br>
> In the latter the negation is simply elided,<br>
<br>
sure<br>
<br>
> and this is flagged by the "t'".<br>
<br>
the t' would be there even with "ne" present, wouldn't it?<br>
<br>
> The full form "t'inquiète pas" is still very common and even if the short form became opaque, the reflexive instead of full O pronoun would be a clear difference in my opinion ?<br>
<br>
indeed. My point was to show that "not-X" does not have to be coded in<br>
the lexeme, and that negation does not even have to coded segmentally.<br>
In one interpretation of the original question, the same segments could<br>
thus be used once with positive polarity and once with negative<br>
polarity. In one way, this answers the original question, although it is<br>
probably not a satisfactory answer.<br>
Best wishes<br>
Sebastian<br>
<br>
<br>
<br>
<br>
<br>
<br>
> <br>
> <br>
> Cheers, Maïa<br>
> <br>
> <br>
> <br>
> Dr Maïa Ponsonnet<br>
> Senior Lecturer in Linguistics<br>
> ARC Discovery Early Career Researcher Fellow<br>
> <br>
> <br>
> Social Sciences Building, Room 2.47<br>
> Faculty of Arts, Business, Law and Education<br>
> The University of Western Australia<br>
> 35 Stirling Hwy, Perth, WA (6009), Australia<br>
> P. +61 (0) 8 6488 2870 - M. +61 (0) 468 571 030<br>
> <br>
> <br>
> <br>
> ________________________________<br>
> From: Lingtyp <lingtyp-bounces@listserv.linguistlist.org> on behalf of Sebastian Nordhoff <sebastian.nordhoff@glottotopia.de><br>
> Sent: Thursday, 31 May 2018 7:37 PM<br>
> To: lingtyp@listserv.linguistlist.org<br>
> Subject: Re: [Lingtyp] Does bipolar polysemy exist?<br>
> <br>
> On 05/31/2018 01:18 PM, David Gil wrote:<br>
>> A point of logic. "Not X" and "Antonym (X)" are distinct notions, and<br>
>> the original query by Ian Joo pertains to the former, not the latter.<br>
> <br>
> but is there any (monomorphemic) lexeme which expresses not-X which is<br>
> not the antonym of X?<br>
> <br>
> And the original questions seems to imply that negation has to be found<br>
> in the lexeme itself. I am not sure I fully get the question, but I feel<br>
> that the following examples from French might be relevant<br>
> <br>
> (1) Inquiète-toi! `you better worry'<br>
> (2) T'inquiète! `Don't worry'<br>
> <br>
> The lexeme is the same, but the position of the clitic changes the<br>
> polarity. (This only works for this particular lexeme).<br>
> <br>
> The original claim was<br>
> <br>
>> /There exists no lexeme that can mean X and the negation of X./<br>
> <br>
> I am not sure about the meaning of "mean" here, but if we rephrase this<br>
> as "There exists no lexeme which can be used to make a proposition<br>
> containing it evaluate to both true and false", I feel that some of the<br>
> examples from the Wikipedia article would fit the bill.<br>
> <br>
> I believe, however, that most theories of semantics would claim that in<br>
> all the cases mentioned on Wikipedia, we are actually dealing with<br>
> homophonous lexemes, not with one lexeme.<br>
> <br>
> Best wishes<br>
> Sebastian<br>
> <br>
> <br>
> <br>
> <br>
>> Hence, the Wikipedia entry on "auto-antonym", however interesting in its<br>
>> own right, is not directly relevant to the original query.<br>
>><br>
>> From a narrow truth-functional perspective, "X or not X" is a tautology,<br>
>> and hence any meaningless expression in a language (e.g. an exclamation<br>
>> expressing an affective state) would be equivalent to, say, "go or not<br>
>> go". But somehow, I suspect that this is not what Ian Joo is looking<br>
>> for ...<br>
>><br>
>><br>
>> On 31/05/2018 12:57, Joo Ian wrote:<br>
>>><br>
>>> Dear all,<br>
>>><br>
>>> I would like to know if the following universal claim holds:<br>
>>><br>
>>> /There exists no lexeme that can mean X and the negation of X. (For<br>
>>> example, no lexeme can express “to go” and “to not go”)./<br>
>>><br>
>>> I wonder if such “bipolar polysemy” exists in any lexeme, because I<br>
>>> cannot think of any, and whether this claim is truly universal.<br>
>>><br>
>>> I would appreciate to know if there is any counter-evidence.<br>
>>><br>
>>> From Hong Kong,<br>
>>><br>
>>> Ian Joo<br>
>>><br>
>>> <a href="http://ianjoo.academia.edu" id="LPlnk857651" class="OWAAutoLink" previewremoved="true">
http://ianjoo.academia.edu</a>
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Affiliations. National Chiao Tung University, Linguistics, Graduate Student</div>
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<br>
> Ian Joo<<a href="http://ianjoo.academia.edu/" id="LPlnk105541" class="OWAAutoLink" previewremoved="true">http://ianjoo.academia.edu/</a>><br>
> ianjoo.academia.edu<br>
> Affiliations. National Chiao Tung University, Linguistics, Graduate Student<br>
> <br>
> <br>
> <br>
>>><br>
>>><br>
>>><br>
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