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<font face="Arial" class=""><span style="font-size: 14px;" class="">Dear David</span></font>
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<div class=""><font face="Arial" class=""><span style="font-size: 14px;" class="">Just to say that the data are richer than you suggest "Cross-linguistically, in languages where there is agreement in genitive constructions, it is the possessor (or G) that controls
the agreement and the possessum (or N) that is its target (the so-called "head-marking" pattern).” In fact both patterns of agreement are found, possessor-possessum and possessum-possessor (there are some examples in
<i class="">Agreement (</i>2006: section 2.2.6). So your hypothesis has wider implications. I don’t know about metaphors; but no doubt other LingTypers do</span></font></div>
<div class=""><font face="Arial" class=""><span style="font-size: 14px;" class="">Very best</span></font></div>
<div class=""><font face="Arial" class=""><span style="font-size: 14px;" class="">Grev</span></font></div>
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<div class="">On 16 Sep 2019, at 14:28, David Gil <<a href="mailto:gil@shh.mpg.de" class="">gil@shh.mpg.de</a>> wrote:</div>
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<span lang="EN-US" class="">Dear all,<br class="">
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<span lang="EN-US" class="">I am interested in testing a hypothesis regarding a correlation between the respective directionalities of metaphoricity and agreement.</span></div>
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<span lang="EN-US" class="">Let X Y be a construction in which Y is the source of a metaphor (the metaphorical description) and X its metaphorical target (the thing being described by the source).<span class=""> <span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span></span></span></div>
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<span lang="EN-US" class="">Hypothesis:</span></div>
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<span lang="EN-US" class="">IF a relationship of morphological agreement obtains between X and Y, THEN X is the controller of agreement and Y is its target (but not vice versa).</span></div>
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<span lang="EN-US" class="">(Terminological note: it is inconvenient that both theories of metaphor and theories of agreement use the same term "target".<span class=""> <span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span></span>It should be kept in mind that there
is no connection between the two usages of the term - in fact, the hypothesis suggests that the two usages fall on opposite sides of the correlation.)</span></div>
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<span lang="EN-US" class="">Commonplace examples upholding the correlation are cases of an NP in construction with an adjectival or verbal predicate, as in (1), and a N in construction with an adjectival or verbal attribute, as in (2).<span class=""> <span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span></span>(The
examples are in French so as to illustrate the agreement.)</span></div>
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<span lang="EN-US" class="">(1) Ton idée est verte</span></div>
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<span lang="EN-US" class="">(2) Une idée verte</span></div>
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<span lang="EN-US" class="">However, attributive genitive metaphors, as in (3), pose a potential challenge to the hypothesis.<span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span></span></div>
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<span lang="EN-US" class="">(3) Heart of stone</span></div>
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<span lang="EN-US" class="">Cross-linguistically, in languages where there is agreement in genitive constructions, it is the possessor (or G) that controls the agreement and the possessum (or N) that is its target (the so-called "head-marking" pattern).<span class=""> <span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span></span>Accordingly,
in such languages, in the equivalent of, say, (3), the metaphorical target 'heart' would also be the agreement target', in violation of the proposed hypothesis.</span></div>
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<span lang="EN-US" class="">My query therefore is:<span class=""> <span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span></span>are there languages with agreement in genitive constructions in which metaphorical interpretations are available in such constructions (in violation
of the hypothesis)?</span></div>
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<span lang="EN-US" class="">Hebrew provides prima facie reason to suspect that there may not be any such counterexamples.<span class=""> <span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span></span>Hebrew has two genitive constructions, the first, as in (4/5a), without
agreement, the second, as in (4/5b), with agreement:</span></div>
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<span lang="EN-US" class="">(4)<span class=""> <span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span></span>(a)<span class=""> <span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span></span>Halev šel moše</span></div>
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<span lang="EN-US" class=""><span class=""> <span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span></span>DEF:heart of Moses</span></div>
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<span lang="EN-US" class=""><span class=""> <span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span></span>(b)<span class=""> <span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span></span>Libo šel moše</span></div>
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<span lang="EN-US" class=""><span class=""> <span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span></span>heart.CONSTR:3SGM of Moses</span></div>
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<span lang="EN-US" class="">(5)<span class=""> <span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span></span>(a)<span class=""> <span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span></span>Lev šel even</span></div>
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<span lang="EN-US" class=""><span class=""> <span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span></span>heart of stone</span></div>
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<span lang="EN-US" class=""><span class=""> <span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span></span>(b)<span class=""> <span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span></span>Libo šel even</span></div>
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<span lang="EN-US" class=""><span class=""> <span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span></span>heart.CONSTR:3SGM of stone</span></div>
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<span lang="EN-US" class="">While (4a/b) are interpreted literally, (5a) has a metaphorical interpretation.<span class=""> <span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span></span>Crucially, though, in (5b), the metaphorical interpretation is no longer available
— the construction doesn't make sense.<span class=""> <span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span></span>What seems to be happening here is that the agreement in (5b) is preventing the metaphorical interpretation from occurring, and thereby providing seemingly
strong support for the hypothesis.</span></div>
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<span lang="EN-US" class="">But Hebrew is just one language.<span class=""> <span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span></span>So I'd be interested in knowing whether similar facts hold cross-linguistically.<span class=""> <span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span></span>A
counterexample to my hypothesis would be a language that allows an agreeing genitive construction such as in (5b) to bear a metaphorical interpretation:<span class=""> <span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span></span>Is anybody familiar with such cases?<span class=""> <span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span></span>Of
course, I would also greatly appreciate examples of languages with agreeing genitives that do not allow them to bear metaphorical interpretations, as these would provide additional support for the hypothesis.</span></div>
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<span lang="EN-US" class="">Thanks,</span></div>
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<span lang="EN-US" class="">David</span></div>
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