<div dir="ltr">Quite in line with Martin's work (1994), I discussed this (to a certain extent) in relation to asymmetry in participial systems. Participles specializing in S/A relativization (active) often refer to habitual events, while participles specializing in P(/S) relativization (passive or "absolutive") are mostly perfective or resultative. This seems relevant, since participles are a well-known source of ergativity in independent clauses, and in some languages they are involved in the formation of passive constructions. This topic is touched upon in sections 3.3.5, 7.2.1 and 7.5.2 of both the dissertation and the book:<div><br></div><div>Shagal, Ksenia. 2017. Towards a typology of participles. Helsinki: University of Helsinki doctoral dissertation. (<a href="https://helda.helsinki.fi/bitstream/handle/10138/177418/Towardsa.pdf">https://helda.helsinki.fi/bitstream/handle/10138/177418/Towardsa.pdf</a>)</div><div>Shagal, Ksenia. 2019. Participles: A typological study. Berlin: Mouton de Gruyter.</div><div><br></div><div>Best wishes,</div><div>Ksenia</div></div><br><div class="gmail_quote"><div dir="ltr" class="gmail_attr">On Fri, Nov 8, 2019 at 9:13 PM Peter Arkadiev <<a href="mailto:peterarkadiev@yandex.ru">peterarkadiev@yandex.ru</a>> wrote:<br></div><blockquote class="gmail_quote" style="margin:0px 0px 0px 0.8ex;border-left:1px solid rgb(204,204,204);padding-left:1ex">I'm wondering why I haven't got Sergey's original message... And this is not the first time I only see the replies to a posting on this list without receiving the original.<br>
To Sergey's question, Emma Geniušienė reports that in the Lithuanian texts she has analysed, the passive is more than two times more frequently used in the *present* tense than in the past, see "Passive Constructions in Lithuanian" (Benjamins, 2016), p. 141.<br>
<br>
Best regards,<br>
<br>
Peter<br>
<br>
-- <br>
Peter Arkadiev, PhD<br>
Institute of Slavic Studies<br>
Russian Academy of Sciences<br>
Leninsky prospekt 32-A 119991 Moscow<br>
<a href="mailto:peterarkadiev@yandex.ru" target="_blank">peterarkadiev@yandex.ru</a><br>
<a href="http://inslav.ru/people/arkadev-petr-mihaylovich-peter-arkadiev" rel="noreferrer" target="_blank">http://inslav.ru/people/arkadev-petr-mihaylovich-peter-arkadiev</a><br>
<br>
<br>
<br>
08.11.2019, 20:33, "Haspelmath, Martin" <<a href="mailto:haspelmath@shh.mpg.de" target="_blank">haspelmath@shh.mpg.de</a>>:<br>
> Yes, I found this discussed by Comrie in 1981, and discussed it myself in 1994:<br>
><br>
> Comrie, Bernard. 1981. Aspect and voice: Some reflections on perfect and passive. In Philip J. Tedeschi & Annie Zaenen (eds.), Tense and aspect (Syntax and Semantics 14), 65–78. New York: Academic Press.<br>
> Haspelmath, Martin. 1994. Passive participles across languages. In Barbara Fox & Paul J. Hopper (eds.), Voice: Form and function (Typological Studies in Language), 151–177. Amsterdam: Benjamins. doi:10.1075/tsl.27.08has. (<a href="https://zenodo.org/record/227097" rel="noreferrer" target="_blank">https://zenodo.org/record/227097</a>)<br>
><br>
> But there must be more recent work about this as well.<br>
><br>
> Best,<br>
> Martin<br>
><br>
> On 08.11.19 18:19, Sergey Lyosov wrote:<br>
>> Dear colleagues<br>
>><br>
>> Working with corpora of certain Semitic languages, I noticed that passive verb forms are much more frequent in the past tenses than in present and future tenses. This is also my impression of various languages with which I am familiar but have not studied their verbal systems. Does such cross-linguistic feature exist? If yes, how do we explain it?<br>
>><br>
>> Best wishes,<br>
>><br>
>> Sergey<br>
><br>
> -- Martin Haspelmath (<a href="mailto:haspelmath@shh.mpg.de" target="_blank">haspelmath@shh.mpg.de</a>) Max Planck Institute for the Science of Human History Kahlaische Strasse 10 D-07745 Jena & Leipzig University Institut fuer Anglistik IPF 141199 D-04081 Leipzig<br>
> ,<br>
><br>
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