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<div class="moz-cite-prefix">Dear all,</div>
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<div class="moz-cite-prefix">by the way, heaps of non-native
speakers are forced to write in English and to read English, a
language they have probably learnt at school. School English is
just one variety of English, sometimes with outlooks on vocabulary
of other varieties. Now, I have often come across native speakers
using insider's idiomatic expressions and examples from different
and lesser known varieties of English in their contributions
without explaining what they mean. Paraphrasing would help in
these cases as well. <br>
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<div class="moz-cite-prefix">Regards,</div>
<div class="moz-cite-prefix">Johanna Mattissen</div>
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<div class="moz-cite-prefix">
<address>European Legal Linguistics</address>
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<address>University of Cologne</address>
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<div class="moz-cite-prefix">Am 26.06.2020 um 05:56 schrieb
<a class="moz-txt-link-abbreviated" href="mailto:joo@shh.mpg.de">joo@shh.mpg.de</a>:<br>
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<div dir="auto">Dear all,<br>
<br>
In linguistics, it is common to see in-text citation of text
written in different European languages without giving
translation, such as an English paper quoting French text
without additional translation, assuming that the reader is
able to read these languages.<br>
I believe that this practice is problematic and we should not
assume the readers to be able to read French, German, or other
European languages (unless the topic of the paper is directly
related to one of these languages). Why do we assume the
reader to read a European language but not a non-European
language such as Chinese or Turkish? Clearly the latter two
are also languages used extensively in academic works, why
should they almost always be given translation when European
languages like French or German are very often exempted from
translation?<br>
I would like to know your opinion on this. I’m writing this on
this mailing list because I believe this happens more often in
typology than in many other subfields.</div>
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<div dir="auto">Regards,<br>
Ian Joo</div>
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