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<div dir="auto"><span style="font-family:Times New Roman">Dear Jeremy,</span><br>
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<span style="font-family:Times New Roman">thank you for your explanation. But could you elaborate on your following comment: "However, 3rd person pronoun, if any, is systemically different from demonstratives, interrogatives, and NPs even if the latter can
'refer' to non-1 or non-2 person, such as morphological structures, syntactic behaviors."</span><br>
<span style="font-family:Times New Roman">How are they different morphosyntactically, and is this morphosyntactic distance cross-linguistically consistent? In other words, is there a morphosyntactic distance that systematically distinguishes 3rd person pronouns
from demonstratives?</span></div>
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<div name="messageSignatureSection"><br>
Ian</div>
<div name="messageReplySection">On 6 Jul 2021, 3:09 PM +0800, tangzhengda <tangzhengda@126.com>, wrote:<br>
<blockquote type="cite" style="border-left-color: grey; border-left-width: thin; border-left-style: solid; margin: 5px 5px;padding-left: 10px;">
<br>
<div><span style="font-size: 14px;"><span style="font-family: Arial;">However, 3rd person pronoun, if any, is systemically different from demonstratives, interrogatives, and NPs even if the latter can 'refer' to non-1 or non-2 person, such as morphological
structures, syntactic behaviors.</span></span></div>
</blockquote>
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