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<div dir="auto"><span style="font-family:Times New Roman">Dear Stéphane,</span><br>
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<span style="font-family:Times New Roman">thank you for your helpful explanation.</span><br>
<span style="font-family:Times New Roman">However I don’t quite follow the following statement:</span></div>
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<div style="indent-level: 1;font-size: 13px"><span style="font-family:Times New Roman;font-size: 13px">That is why the </span><strong style="font-family:Times New Roman;font-size: 13px">same</strong><span style="font-family:Times New Roman;font-size: 13px"> pronominal
form (except for gender agreement when required) is used to refer to all kinds of nouns</span></div>
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<div dir="auto"><span style="font-size: 13px"><br>
</span><span style="font-family:Times New Roman;font-size: 13px">Why, among all semantic properties, is gender an exception?</span><span style="font-size: 13px"><br>
</span><span style="font-family:Times New Roman;font-size: 13px">So suppose a certain language uses the same form for all nouns with the same social status, age (relative to the speaker), animacy, distance, etc. </span><span style="font-size: 13px"><br>
</span><span style="font-family:Times New Roman;font-size: small">Would such pronoun not fall into the definition of a pronoun because it does not “lack all the semantic richeness of the lexicon”?</span><span style="font-size: small"><br>
</span><span style="font-family:Times New Roman;font-size: small">If so then why is gender excluded from the “semantic richness”?</span></div>
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Regards,
<div dir="auto">Ian</div>
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<div dir="auto">On 9 Jul 2021, 5:04 PM +0800, ROBERT Stephane <stephane.robert@cnrs.fr>, wrote:</div>
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